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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Exam 2025 Most Repeated Questions

By Ankit Gupta

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Updated on 13 Feb 2025, 17:16 IST

Prepare for the upcoming CBSE Class 10 Social Science board exam by practicing the CBSE Class 10 Social Science Most Repeated Questions. These are the questions that frequently appear in previous exams and can help you score well in your exams. By focusing on these CBSE Class 10 Social Science Repeated Questions, you can gain a better understanding of the exam pattern and improve your chances of success.

The Most Repeated Questions in CBSE Class 10 Social Science cover a variety of topics from all chapters. These include short and long answer questions that have been commonly repeated in the past years. Practicing these questions will give you a clear idea of the important concepts you need to focus on for your exam preparation.

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Exam 2025 Most Repeated Questions

Key Question Types in CBSE Class 10 Social Science Exam

The CBSE Class 10 Social Science Most Repeated Questions come from the following categories:

  • 20 MCQs (1 mark each)
  • 4 Short Answer Type Questions-I (2 marks each)
  • 5 Short Answer Type Questions-II (3 marks each)
  • 4 Long Answer Type Questions (5 marks each)
  • 3 Case Based Questions (4 marks each)
  • 1 Map Based Question (5 marks)

These question types will test your knowledge across different sections, including MCQs, short answers, and long answers. The CBSE Class 10 Social Science Repeated Questions will give you a focused practice on what is likely to appear in the exam.

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Most Repeated Questions

1 Mark Questions

1. Which

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(a) Peru

(b) Mexico

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(c) El Dorado

(d) Spain

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2. Which of the following books is the autobiography of Rashundari Devi?

(a) Amar Jiban

(b) Istri Dharam Vichar

(c) Gulamgiri

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(d) Ghor Kali

3. Fill in the blank with the appropriate option.

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____________ began to maintain index of prohibited books in Rome during 1558.

(a) Church

(b) Aristocrats

(c) Protestants

(d) Industrialists

4. Look at the picture given below and select the correct option from the following:

Which of the following aspects best signifies this image of Germania?

(a) As a protector of Germany

(b) As a protector of her child

(c) As a protector of German Rhine

(d) As a guardian of women’s rights

5. Which among the following statements is not correct regarding the

(a) It includes 1200 hectares of forest land

b) The inhabitants of five villages in the Alwar district of Rajasthan

(c) They are protecting the wildlife against any outside encroachments.

(d) The rules and regulations followed here are declared by the government.

6. Match Column 1 with Column 2 and select the correct option from the following :

Column I
(Land use categories)
Column II
(Purpose)
A.Forests
B.Land put to non-agricultural uses
C.Permanent Pastures
D.Net Sown Area
I. Used for roads, railways, industry
etc.
II. Land for feeding the cattle population
III. Land for cultivation of crops
IV. Essential for maintenance of ecological balance

Options :

(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(b) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(c) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(d) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

7. Identify the appropriate reason for introduction of Community Government in Belgium.

(a) To enable power sharing among various political parties.

(b) To ensure power sharing among various organs of the Government.

(c) To give more power to the Dutch speaking community.

(d) To share power among different religious and linguistic social groups.

8. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option as your answer:

Assertion (A) : India has a multiparty system.

Reason (R) : It is because of the social and geographical diversities in India.

Options :

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the

correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not

the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

9. When was the Wildlife Protection Act implemented?

(a) 1972

(b) 1978

(c) 1980

(d) 1985

10. Cargill Foods, a very large MNC, is the largest producer of edible oil in India. Which one of these countries does it belong to?

(a) India

(b) France

(c) Great Britain

(d) United States of America

11. Cargill Foods, a very large MNC, is the largest producer of edible oil in India. Which one of these countries does it belong to?

(a) India

(b) France

(c) Great Britain

(d) United States of America

12. Choose the correct option from the following regarding Central Powers in the First World War :

(a) Germany, Austria-Hungary and Ottoman Turkey

(b) Britain, France and Russia

(c) Italy, Japan and Russia

(d) France, Austria-Hungary and China

13. There are two statements given as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : Agriculture and industry move hand in hand.

Reason (R) : Industrial development is a precondition for eradication of unemployment and poverty from the country.

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

14. Which one of the following countries adopted multi-party system ?

(a) USA

(b) India

(c) China

(d) United Kingdom

15. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank.

For comparing countries, their __________ is considered to be one of the most important attributes by the World Bank.

(a) Education

(b) Income

(c) Health Status

(d) Living Standard

2 Mark Questions

  1. Explain the role of women in spreading the print culture in India during the nineteenth century.
  2. Mention any two aspects of occupational mobility.  
  3. Explain any two technological reforms initiated by the Indian Government in agriculture.
  4. How has agriculture been the backbone of the Indian economy? Explain.
  5. Analyse the role of tertiary sector in the Indian economy.
  6. Mention any two aspects of occupational mobility.  
  7. Mention different aspects in which women are discriminated against in India.
  8. Suggest any two ways to create more employment in the rural sector.
  9. 'Energy saved is energy produced.' Support the statement.

3 Mark Questions

  1. Why did the Non-Cooperation Movement slow down in towns and cities? Explain.
  2. Explain the participation of the business class in the Civil Disobedience Movement.  
  3. How is resource planning a complex process? Explain.
  4. "Globalisation and competition among producers have been of advantage to the consumers." Give suitable arguments in support of this statement.
  5. What is Gross Domestic Product (GDP)? Why are final goods and services included in the calculation of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) ? Explain.
  6. Explain the contribution of Public Sector in the economic development of a nation.
  7. "Democracy produce an accountable, responsive and legitimate government." Justify this statement.
  8. Why are resources vital for any developmental activity ? Explain.
  9. Analyse the impact of globalization on the Indian economy.
  • We will update more questions from the previous years’ exams. Keep refreshing for more important questions.
  • 'Democracy accomodates social diversities.' Support the statement with examples.
  • Why do people prefer to work in the organised sector ? Explain any three reasons.

Do Check: CBSE Syllabus for Class 10 Social Science

5 Mark Questions

  1. Describe the decisions taken in the Treaty of Vienna of 1815.
  2. Describe the economic hardships faced by Europe in 1830s.
  3. Analyse the benefits of using pipelines as a means of transport in India.
  4. Examine the significance of Trade for the Indian economy.
  5. Explain the role of Self-Help Groups in rural society.
  6. Define Political Parties. Explain any four main challenges faced by the political parties.
  7. Explain any five effects of the revolution of the liberals in Europe in 1848.
  1. How are industries contributing to the national economy? Explain.
  2. Explain any five ways to reduce air and water pollution.
  3. What is a collateral ? Why is it a main reason to prevent the poor getting a loan from banks ? Explain.
  4. Explain any five challenges faced by political parties in India.
  5. Explain any five major functions of the political parties.

Case Study Questions

1.Read the following source carefully and answer the questions that follow :

The earliest factories in England came up by the 1730s. But it was only in the late eighteenth century that the number of factories multiplied.

The first symbol of the new era was cotton. Its production boomed in the late nineteenth century. In 1760 Britain was importing 2.5 million pounds of raw cotton to feed its cotton industry. By 1787 this import soared to 22 million pounds. This increase was linked to a number of changes within the process of production. Let us look briefly at some of these.

 A series of inventions in the eighteenth century increased the efficacy of each step of the production process (carding, twisting and spinning, and rolling). They enhanced the output per worker, enabling each worker to produce more, and they made possible the production of storage threads and yarn. Then Richard Arkwright created the cotton mill. Till this time, as you have seen, cloth production was spread all over the countryside and carried out within village households. But now, the costly new machines could be purchased, set up and maintained in the mill. Within the mill all the processes were brought together under one roof and management. This allowed a more careful supervision over the production process, a watch over quality, and the regulation of labour, all of which had been difficult to do when production was in the countryside.

(i) When did the earliest factories come up?

(ii) Why were all the processes brought together under one roof and management in the mill?

(iii) How did the series of inventions in the eighteenth century increase the efficacy of the production process?

2.Read the given extract and answer the questions that follow :

Belgium is a small country in Europe, smaller in area than the state of Haryana. It has borders with France, the Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg. It has a population of a little over one crore, about half the population of Haryana. The ethnic composition of this small country is per cent lives in the Flemish region and speaks Dutch language. Another 40 per cent people live in the Wallonia region and speak French. Remaining one per cent of the Belgians speak German. In the capital city Brussels, 80 per cent of the people speak French while 20 per cent are Dutch-speaking.

(i) Explain the ethnic composition of Belgium. 1

(ii) Explain the term 'ethinic.'

(iii) How did the Belgian Government solve their ethnic problem? Explain.

3.Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :

The rise of political parties is directly linked to the emergence of representative democracies. As we have seen, large societies need representative democracy. As societies became large and complex, they also needed some agency to gather different views on various issues and to present these to the government. They needed some ways, to bring various representatives together so that a responsible government could be formed. They needed a mechanism to support or restrain the government, make policies, justify or oppose them. Political parties fulfil these needs that every representative government has. We can say that parties are a necessary condition for a democracy.

(i) Explain the meaning of a olitical party.

(ii) "The rise of political parties is directly linked to the emergence of representative democracies.

(iii) Why are political parties a necessary condition for a democracy? Explain.

Map Based Questions

1. (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify these places with the help of the following information and write their correct names on

the lines drawn near them:

(i) The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in 1927.

(ii) The place where Gandhiji organised Satyagraha for the indigo planters.

(iii) The place where Gandhiji broke the salt law.

(iv) The place where the session of the Indian National Congress was held in September, 1920.

(v) The place where the session of the Indian National Congress was held in December, 1920.  

(vi) The place where Jallianwala Bagh incident occurred.

(b) On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols:

(i) Salal Dam

(ii) Ramagundam Thermal Power Plant

(iii) Gandhinagar Software Technology Park

(iv) Tuticorin Sea Port

(v) Tehri Dam

(vi) Bokaro Coal mines

(vii) Pune Software Technology Park

(viii) Tuticorin Sea port

(ix) Noida Software Technology Park

(x) Bailadila Iron-ore mines

(xi) Tarapur Nuclear Power Plant

(xii) Haldia Sea port

Why Practice the CBSE Class 10 Social Science Most Repeated Questions?

By practicing the Most Repeated Questions in CBSE Class 10 Social Science, you will not only understand the types of questions but also get an idea of how much time to allocate for each section. Practicing these questions will help you identify key topics and revise important concepts. Additionally, these repeated questions can help you build confidence as you approach the exam.

How to Use the Most Repeated Questions in CBSE Class 10 Social Science to Prepare

  • Start by practicing the CBSE Class 10 Social Science Most Repeated Questions from each chapter.
  • Focus on important 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5-mark questions that are commonly repeated in past exams.
  • Revise key topics, including those frequently asked in the CBSE Class 10 Social Science Repeated Questions.
  • Work on understanding the pattern and structure of the questions to improve your answering techniques.

By including these CBSE Class 10 Social Science Repeated Questions in your study routine, you will be able to boost your preparation for the CBSE Class 10 Social Science Exam 2025. Keep practicing and stay confident—these Most Repeated Questions in CBSE Class 10 Social Science are your key to exam success!

FAQs on CBSE Class 10 Social Science Exam 2025 Most Repeated Questions

What are the most repeated questions in the CBSE Class 10 Social Science exam?

The CBSE Class 10 Social Science Most Repeated Questions are those that frequently appear in past board exams. These questions typically cover key topics from all chapters in Social Science, including History, Geography, Political Science, and Economics. By practicing these repeated questions, students can better understand the exam pattern and be more prepared for the upcoming exam.

How can practicing the CBSE Class 10 Social Science repeated questions help me score better?

Practicing the CBSE Class 10 Social Science Repeated Questions helps you focus on important concepts and topics that are likely to appear in the exam. It allows you to understand the format and types of questions that are commonly asked, improving your chances of scoring higher marks. Additionally, it builds your confidence and helps manage time effectively during the exam.

What types of questions are included in the CBSE Class 10 Social Science exam?

The CBSE Class 10 Social Science exam includes a mix of question types:

  • 20 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – 1 mark each
  • 4 Short Answer Type Questions-I – 2 marks each
  • 5 Short Answer Type Questions-II – 3 marks each
  • 4 Long Answer Type Questions – 5 marks each
  • 3 Case-Based Questions – 4 marks each
  • 1 Map-Based Question – 5 marks

By practicing the Most Repeated Questions in CBSE Class 10 Social Science, you can get familiar with these question types.

How should I use the CBSE Class 10 Social Science most repeated questions to study?

To study effectively using the Most Repeated Questions in CBSE Class 10 Social Science, start by reviewing each chapter’s important concepts. Focus on the 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5-mark questions that are most commonly repeated. Use these questions to practice writing concise answers and understand the underlying concepts. By doing this, you will be well-prepared for both short and long-answer sections of the exam.

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